andyt365 Posted November 1, 2021 Share Posted November 1, 2021 How does FFP work towards wage bill budgets? When trying to buy a player for Spurs I had a wage bill of £146m and FFP of £120m. Yet revenue was £420m? How does that work?? In real life 50-60% wages to turnover is normal. There should be room for another £100m. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
rusty217 Posted November 1, 2021 Share Posted November 1, 2021 Do you mean FFP is showing a profit of 120m? That means you do have another 120m to spend. If your revenue is 420m then your expenditure would be 300m, giving a profit of 120m. FFP goes on profit, not just wages vs revenue. Plus not all revenue/expenditure sources are counted. Investment revenue for example is usually only counted up to a certain amount. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
andyt365 Posted November 9, 2021 Author Share Posted November 9, 2021 Ah no sorry, it meant that my FFP wage bill was max 120 Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Marinho Posted November 9, 2021 Share Posted November 9, 2021 14 minutes ago, andyt365 said: Ah no sorry, it meant that my FFP wage bill was max 120 I found no consequences in ignoring that (you mean the message showing on the left when buying a player ?) and nothing is mentioned in the FFP section. Might be a visual issue ? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
andyt365 Posted November 9, 2021 Author Share Posted November 9, 2021 Yeah youre right. Also when I was newcastle I spent a fortune and the wage bill broke FFP but the club kept finding new sponsorships to offset it Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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